[b-hebrew] Isaiah 53: in his death?
Harold R. Holmyard III
hholmyard at ont.com
Tue May 18 22:18:25 EDT 2004
You ask a good question.
>These are very interesting but bewildering.
>What sense is it that a rich man would
>have the same sort of grave as a criminal?
>I thought criminals were buried away from
HH: Some interpreters suggest that wickedness and richness are often
associated together, such as in the Prophets. But others object that
when it comes to burials, being with the rich implies a good burial.
So they take the verse to describe a two-stage assignment. It was
intended that the person be buried with the wicked, but when he
actually died he was put with the rich. "In his death" comes to have
a sequential force. The reason would then be given in the following
clause. He was assigned with the rich in his death because he had not
done violence and there was no deceit in his mouth.
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