[b-hebrew] Re: agent or patient in Psa. 33:12?
Harold R. Holmyard III
hholmyard at ont.com
Thu May 13 13:20:42 EDT 2004
> > > HH: Liz gave one reason, and I gave another. But
>> > if you want a third reason, your translation
>> > doesn't have YHWH as a possible object. If LW
>> > means "for itself," then there is no object for
>> > the verb "choose."
> > >
>> This is what I've been trying to say all along.
>> LW means "for itself/himself." There's no object for
>> "choose." To have "Him" be the object as Michael
>> wants, it would have to be BW.
>Liz and Harold (...anyone?),
>Please assume that I am totally dense and walk me
>through this, okay? I am actually trying to learn
>from those with more experience in the language.
>Therefore, letís not work off my *translation* which
>we all agree could use some work. Letís please argue
>and instruct from the MT of Psa. 33:12.
>Now here are my observations. Tell me exactly where
>my reasoning is faulty:
>1. HGWY and H(M are in synonymous parallelism ñ both
>referring back to )$RY.
>2. The first stiche is a verbless clause; the second
>3. The verb in the second stiche is ms; YHWH and (M
>are both ms.
>4. Therefore the same syntactic rules apply to either
>YHWHís ìchoosingî or H(Mís ìchoosing.î If one
>requires a prefixed B- then so does the other.
>5. But this is poetry and terse, therefore object
>markers and prepositions are sometimes missing.
>6. Consequently, in our little poetry world, what
>applies syntactically to the ms YHWH theoretically
>applies to the ms H(M. If YHWH can ìchooseî
>something/one LW, then so can H(M ìchooseî
>something/one LW. And visa-versa.
>7. Therefore, the verse is syntactically ambiguous.
>8. So the question must now go beyond the range of
>syntax. Karl R. has offered some helpful thoughts
>concerning who (or Who) usually does the choosing in
>Israelís and YHWHís covenant relationship. It is
>9. However, it is not always YHWH Who chooses;
>sometimes people choose Him in the TaNaKH. And it is
>not always Israel who is YHWHís NXLH (i.e.
>inheritance); sometimes YHWH is described as Israelís
>or the Levitesí, or someoneís ìinheritance.î
>10. Therefore I wonder why this verse is consistently
>translated one way, with Israel ending up as YHWHí
HH: You seem to be assuming that everything is
pretty much equal, so it is just a matter of
seeing which subject and object is most
appropriate. But the grammar works differently in
)$RY HGWY )$R YHWH )LHYW
H(M BHR LNXLH LW
HH: If God is the subject of the second clause, everything goes smoothly:
Blessed is the nation whose God is the Lord (which the Lord is its God),
The people He chose as an inheritance for Himself.
HH: If the people is the subject, things do not proceed well.
Blessed is the nation whose God is the Lord
The people which chose as an inheritance for itself.
HH: The verb "chose" is missing an object. How
would you alter the preceding statement?
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