[b-hebrew] Proto-Semitic, was WAYYIQTOL

Karl Randolph kwrandolph at email.com
Tue Mar 16 20:07:19 EST 2004


English pronounces Latin loan words 
according to a certain set of rules. Was 
Latin at the time of the ceasars spoken 
according to the same rules as modern 
English rules for the same words? No one 
that I know of would make that claim.

By the time of the Masoretes, Hebrew had 
not been spoken as a native language for 
near a millennium. How do we know that the 
Masorete pronunciation, very likely based 
on Aramaic or other languages, was the same 
as Hebrew was spoken a thousand years 
earlier? There is reason to doubt it.

Karl W. Randolph.

----- Original Message -----
From: Peter Kirk <peterkirk at qaya.org>

> Understood. But the original discussion was about the history of the 
> pronunciation of Hebrew. That cannot be understood apart from 
> consideration of other languages.

> If we studied English on the assumption that its alphabet was developed 
> for English alone, and in isolation from other languages using the same 
> alphabet, we would get some very strange results. If we recognise that 
> the alphabet is borrowed from Latin, we can understand much better what 
> has happened.
> -- 
> Peter Kirk
> peter at qaya.org (personal)
> peterkirk at qaya.org (work)
> http://www.qaya.org/

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