[b-hebrew] Fw: Aramaic to them?

Karl Randolph kwrandolph at email.com
Tue Mar 2 18:07:50 EST 2004


Sorry, Peter:

I should have been more clear.

In the same way that Europeans were studying 
Latin for centuries after it was no longer 
spoken outside of academia, church and 
government, so I understand that the first 
century study in Judea and Samaria would have 
had Hebrew as the cornerstone of their 
education. Likewise, just as only a small 
minority actually achieved fluency in Latin in 
Europe, so only a minority (though probably 
somewhat larger) actually achieved fluency in 
Hebrew.

The pattern I was looking at was not the 
specific language, but the pattern of language 
acquisition and usage.

Karl W. Randolph.


----- Original Message -----
From: Peter Kirk <peterkirk at qaya.org>

> On 01/03/2004 09:37, Karl Randolph wrote:
> 
> >Peter:
> >
> >...
> >The classical Gymnasium program was very 
> >strict: first Latin,...
> >
> >That’s why the editors of the BHS expected 
> >knowledge of Latin. And it is this pattern 
> >that is one of the evidences why I don’t 
> >think the common people in Judea and Samaria 
> >spoke Hebrew in the market, on the street or 
> >at home.
> >
> >  
> >
> Thanks for your comments about Germany in the 1970s. But what on earth 
> is the relevance to Judea and Samaria in the 1st century CE? Surely you 
> are not claiming that Jews had to learn Latin before Hebrew?
> 
> 
> -- 
> Peter Kirk
> peter at qaya.org (personal)
> peterkirk at qaya.org (work)
> http://www.qaya.org/
> 

-- 
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