[b-hebrew] DWD or DWYD, YHDH or YHWDH

Peter Kirk peterkirk at qaya.org
Sat Jun 26 15:59:25 EDT 2004


On 26/06/2004 12:40, tmcos at rogers.com wrote:

>Hello,it seems this question was already answered by a list member. I agree with you that we have here a mater waw in the Hebrew spelling of Judah. It is indeed the same with DWD/DWYD. I believe that the maters were developed later in biblical Hebrew? Since biblical Hebrew was originally composed of consonants (I am including paleo-Hebrew at this point which was still pictographic)it appears that the need to employ consonants as vowels developed later. Is this usually the consensus of scholarship? Is there any examples of the mater waw used in DWD or YHDH cited in the qere-ketib?
>
>Tony
>  
>

Maters would not usually be cited in the qere-ketiv, except when the 
ketiv mater does not fit the qere pronunciation. As Yehuda or David is 
pronounced the same whether or not there is a mater vav or yod, the 
pointing is made to fit either the presence or absence of the mater so 
there is no need for a separate qere form.

-- 
Peter Kirk
peter at qaya.org (personal)
peterkirk at qaya.org (work)
http://www.qaya.org/




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