[b-hebrew] DWD or DWYD, YHDH or YHWDH

Harold R. Holmyard III hholmyard at ont.com
Sat Jun 26 11:27:29 EDT 2004


Dear Patrina,

>Regarding the use of maters as vowel indicators, I'm a little puzzled
>that the spelling of Judah throughout the Tanach is always YHWDH with a
>mater waw (as far as I know... maybe I'm mistaken?).  Hezekiah's seals
>spell Judah as YHDH (without a mater) around 7th century BCE.  If there
>were at least a few spellings of YHDH dotted throughout the Pentateuch,
>Prophets and Writings as well as YHWDH, it would seem reasonable to
>suggest that the defective spellings were older occurences, or that full
>spellings represent later redaction as with the DWD and DWYD examples...
>  it just seems unlikely to me that later redaction would have been 100%
>thorough?!


HH: Here is the first use of the word Judah:

Gen. 29:35 ¶ She conceived again, and when she 
gave birth to a son she said,  "This time I will 
praise the LORD." So she named him Judah. Then 
she stopped having children.

HH: So the name Judah is based on the idea of 
praise, which is the verb YDH. This may 
originally have been a "Pe waw" verb (GKC #69a), 
so the letter waw in Judah may be original. It is 
hard to understand the exact derivation involved 
in the noun.

					Yours,
					Harold Holmyard



>
>
>Patrina Nuske Small
>Adelaide, South Australia
>
>On Mon, 21 Jun 2004 08:38:41 +0200, "Yigal Levin"
><leviny1 at mail.biu.ac.il> said:
>>  Hi Tony,
>>
>>  The use of Y as an indicator for the vowel "i" (like most uses of matres
>>  lectonis) is a fairly late developement in Hebrew. We find none in the
>>  Gezer
>>  Calendar, few in the Mesha inscription or the Tell Dan inscription (yes,
>>  I
>>  know that these are Moabite and Aramaic, but they reflect the same
>>  trends),
>>  more in the Siloam, Ekron and in 7-6 century ostraca, bullae etc.
>>
>>  The text of most of the Pentateuch and the Deuteronomistic History is
>>  also
>>  7-6th centuries, so it does use matres lectonis in regular words. But,
>>  presumably, a name like David already had a standardized spelling from
>>  the
>>  previous period (it's also spelled "defectively" - without the Y - in the
>>  Tell Dan inscription). However, in the Second Temple period the Y was
>>  added
>>  even in such names - hence the spelling DVYD in Chronicles, Zachariah
>>  etc.
>>  This is also the spelling in later Hebrew - the Mishnah, Talmud, and
>>  synagogue inscriptions.
>>
>>  The fact that there is one case of DVYD in Kings is probably because a
>>  late
>>  copyist mistakenly used the spelling that was common in his day. The fact
>>  that such "pre-exilic" prophetic books like Hosea and Amos also use DVYD
>>  probably says something about the redaction history of those books (or of
>>  "The Twelve" as a whole).
>>
>>  Yigal
>>
>>  ----- Original Message -----
>>  From: "Tony Costa" <tmcos at rogers.com>
>>  To: <b-hebrew at lists.ibiblio.org>
>>  Sent: Monday, June 21, 2004 4:55 AM
>>  Subject: [b-hebrew] DVD or DVYD?
>>
>>
>>  > Dear Friends, I noticed that there appears to be a variant in the MT for
>>  the name David. In some places David is spelled DVD (eg. 2 Sam.7:5;
>>  Ps.89:21), while in others it is spelled DVYD (eg.1 Chron.15:1-3;
>>  Hos.3:5),
>>  with the yod between the vav (or waw) and daleth. Why the inclusion of
>>  the
>>  yod? Is this a later development as a variant in the name of David? BDB
>>  (sv.DVD) states that these variants of David can occur together in the
>>  same
>>  text. For instance, while the books of Kings uses DVD, there is an
>>  exception
>>  in 1 Kings 3:14 where DVYD is used. Is this a late development or was it
>>  simply the case that this name could be spelled both ways. Many thanks.
>>  >
>>  > Tony Costa
>--
>   Patrina
>   patrina at bestmail.us
>
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