[b-hebrew] DWD or DWYD, YHDH or YHWDH
Harold R. Holmyard III
hholmyard at ont.com
Sat Jun 26 11:27:29 EDT 2004
>Regarding the use of maters as vowel indicators, I'm a little puzzled
>that the spelling of Judah throughout the Tanach is always YHWDH with a
>mater waw (as far as I know... maybe I'm mistaken?). Hezekiah's seals
>spell Judah as YHDH (without a mater) around 7th century BCE. If there
>were at least a few spellings of YHDH dotted throughout the Pentateuch,
>Prophets and Writings as well as YHWDH, it would seem reasonable to
>suggest that the defective spellings were older occurences, or that full
>spellings represent later redaction as with the DWD and DWYD examples...
> it just seems unlikely to me that later redaction would have been 100%
HH: Here is the first use of the word Judah:
Gen. 29:35 ¶ She conceived again, and when she
gave birth to a son she said, "This time I will
praise the LORD." So she named him Judah. Then
she stopped having children.
HH: So the name Judah is based on the idea of
praise, which is the verb YDH. This may
originally have been a "Pe waw" verb (GKC #69a),
so the letter waw in Judah may be original. It is
hard to understand the exact derivation involved
in the noun.
>Patrina Nuske Small
>Adelaide, South Australia
>On Mon, 21 Jun 2004 08:38:41 +0200, "Yigal Levin"
><leviny1 at mail.biu.ac.il> said:
>> Hi Tony,
>> The use of Y as an indicator for the vowel "i" (like most uses of matres
>> lectonis) is a fairly late developement in Hebrew. We find none in the
>> Calendar, few in the Mesha inscription or the Tell Dan inscription (yes,
>> know that these are Moabite and Aramaic, but they reflect the same
>> more in the Siloam, Ekron and in 7-6 century ostraca, bullae etc.
>> The text of most of the Pentateuch and the Deuteronomistic History is
>> 7-6th centuries, so it does use matres lectonis in regular words. But,
>> presumably, a name like David already had a standardized spelling from
>> previous period (it's also spelled "defectively" - without the Y - in the
>> Tell Dan inscription). However, in the Second Temple period the Y was
>> even in such names - hence the spelling DVYD in Chronicles, Zachariah
>> This is also the spelling in later Hebrew - the Mishnah, Talmud, and
>> synagogue inscriptions.
>> The fact that there is one case of DVYD in Kings is probably because a
>> copyist mistakenly used the spelling that was common in his day. The fact
>> that such "pre-exilic" prophetic books like Hosea and Amos also use DVYD
>> probably says something about the redaction history of those books (or of
>> "The Twelve" as a whole).
>> ----- Original Message -----
>> From: "Tony Costa" <tmcos at rogers.com>
>> To: <b-hebrew at lists.ibiblio.org>
>> Sent: Monday, June 21, 2004 4:55 AM
>> Subject: [b-hebrew] DVD or DVYD?
>> > Dear Friends, I noticed that there appears to be a variant in the MT for
>> the name David. In some places David is spelled DVD (eg. 2 Sam.7:5;
>> Ps.89:21), while in others it is spelled DVYD (eg.1 Chron.15:1-3;
>> with the yod between the vav (or waw) and daleth. Why the inclusion of
>> yod? Is this a later development as a variant in the name of David? BDB
>> (sv.DVD) states that these variants of David can occur together in the
>> text. For instance, while the books of Kings uses DVD, there is an
>> in 1 Kings 3:14 where DVYD is used. Is this a late development or was it
>> simply the case that this name could be spelled both ways. Many thanks.
>> > Tony Costa
> patrina at bestmail.us
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