[b-hebrew] What means, "beyn mayim lamayim"?

Dave Washburn dwashbur at nyx.net
Mon Jun 14 21:23:40 EDT 2004


On Monday 14 June 2004 16:01, Yigal Levin wrote:
> > > > > In Genesis, 1:6, it says that "there was divided" "among/
> > >
> > > between
> > >
> > > > > waters
> > > > > to/for the waters (vayihiy or viyih mav'diyl, beyn mayi'm
> > > > > lamayi'ym.)
> > > > >
> > > > > How does this translate?
> > >
> > > Folks: might the word "mavdil" not be a noun, "divider" - "and the
> > > was (or
> > > 'came to be') a DIVIDER between water and water"?
> > >
> > > Yigal
> >
> > _____________
> >
> > Why not?  Isn't a participle by definition a verbal adjective and can be
> > used as a noun?
> >
> > gfsomsel
>
> Yes, but I was thinking of something more concrete - that God reated the
> earth as a physical divider between the upper and lower waters.
>
> Yigal

Several years ago I had an extensive go-around with a person who tried to say 
that the earth's crust was the raqia`.  Is this what you are saying?  Because 
I'm not sure the text will support such an idea.

-- 
Dave Washburn
http://www.nyx.net/~dwashbur
Learning about Christianity from a non-Christian
is like getting a kiss over the telephone.




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