[b-hebrew] exodus, dating of linguistics

Harold R. Holmyard III hholmyard at ont.com
Wed Jun 2 20:26:18 EDT 2004

Dear Uri,

What would some say may not have been so? Are 
they saying that Deuteronomy was not written at 
one time and place? The Book of Deuteronomy says 
that it was.

Deut. 31:9 ¶ So Moses wrote down this law and 
gave it to the priests, the sons of Levi, who 
carried the ark of the covenant of the LORD, and 
to all the elders of Israel.

Are they saying that the other literature, much 
of Joshua-Kings, was not written later? Scripture 
is clear that the events occurred later than the 
writing of the Deuteronomic law by Moses. So they 
must have been written later. Are they saying 
that these other books do not echo the language 
and themes of Deuteronomy. This is a matter of 
judgment to some degree, but certainly a good 
argument can be made for the fact that they do. 
For example, Moses warned about rebellion from 
God and God's punishment, and that is exactly 
what Judges shows.

				Harold Holmyard

>   This may have been so, but, some would say, 
>more likely not have been so. In short, sheer 
>speculation, like much that has been speculated 
>on this subject.
>   Uri
>Peter Kirk <peterkirk at qaya.org> wrote:
>the kind of model I have in mind is:
>1) Deuteronomy was written at one time and place.
>2) The other literature e.g. much of Joshua-Kings which so clearly
>echoes the languages and themes of Deuteronomy was written at a later
>time, and potentially a different place, in imitation, either deliberate
>or accidental, of Deuteronomy.
>Therefore, Michael's stylistic argument that Deuteronomy and
>Joshua-Kings were written at one time and place fails.

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