[b-hebrew] exodus, dating of linguistics
Harold R. Holmyard III
hholmyard at ont.com
Wed Jun 2 20:26:18 EDT 2004
What would some say may not have been so? Are
they saying that Deuteronomy was not written at
one time and place? The Book of Deuteronomy says
that it was.
Deut. 31:9 ¶ So Moses wrote down this law and
gave it to the priests, the sons of Levi, who
carried the ark of the covenant of the LORD, and
to all the elders of Israel.
Are they saying that the other literature, much
of Joshua-Kings, was not written later? Scripture
is clear that the events occurred later than the
writing of the Deuteronomic law by Moses. So they
must have been written later. Are they saying
that these other books do not echo the language
and themes of Deuteronomy. This is a matter of
judgment to some degree, but certainly a good
argument can be made for the fact that they do.
For example, Moses warned about rebellion from
God and God's punishment, and that is exactly
what Judges shows.
> This may have been so, but, some would say,
>more likely not have been so. In short, sheer
>speculation, like much that has been speculated
>on this subject.
>Peter Kirk <peterkirk at qaya.org> wrote:
>the kind of model I have in mind is:
>1) Deuteronomy was written at one time and place.
>2) The other literature e.g. much of Joshua-Kings which so clearly
>echoes the languages and themes of Deuteronomy was written at a later
>time, and potentially a different place, in imitation, either deliberate
>or accidental, of Deuteronomy.
>Therefore, Michael's stylistic argument that Deuteronomy and
>Joshua-Kings were written at one time and place fails.
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