[b-hebrew] exodus, dating of linguistics
peterkirk at qaya.org
Wed Jun 2 17:03:42 EDT 2004
On 02/06/2004 13:01, Michael Banyai wrote:
>Dear Peter Kirk,
>this sounds like a very nice logical argument:
>>I continue to reject this conclusion. Firstly, the premise is not true
>>as there are differences in style and language. But even if it were
>>true, there is nothing to stop skilled authors in later centuries and
>>quite different places from deliberately mimicking the style of the
>>earlier books. To show this, consider that a skilled writer in America
>>could today produce texts which are stylistically identical to
>>Shakespeare (I don't say with the same artistic merit), but that does
>>not prove that they were written in 16th-17th century England.
>But where is the equivalent for this than given in the case of biblical literature. If it should be as you assume of a later date and copying some older prestigious models, where are these models "Vorbilder" we know nothing of?
>Since this kind of literature ought have existed at the time point of the creation of that "later" biblical material, where has the illustrous model disappeared and why?
>All the best,
You misunderstand me. The illustrious model has not disappeared, it is
other parts of the Bible. Certainly the details will be controversial,
but the kind of model I have in mind is:
1) Deuteronomy was written at one time and place.
2) The other literature e.g. much of Joshua-Kings which so clearly
echoes the languages and themes of Deuteronomy was written at a later
time, and potentially a different place, in imitation, either deliberate
or accidental, of Deuteronomy.
Therefore, Michael's stylistic argument that Deuteronomy and
Joshua-Kings were written at one time and place fails.
peter at qaya.org (personal)
peterkirk at qaya.org (work)
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