[b-hebrew] exodus, dating of linguistics
Banyai at t-online.de
Wed Jun 2 16:01:00 EDT 2004
Dear Peter Kirk,
this sounds like a very nice logical argument:
> I continue to reject this conclusion. Firstly, the premise is not true
> as there are differences in style and language. But even if it were
> true, there is nothing to stop skilled authors in later centuries and
> quite different places from deliberately mimicking the style of the
> earlier books. To show this, consider that a skilled writer in America
> could today produce texts which are stylistically identical to
> Shakespeare (I don't say with the same artistic merit), but that does
> not prove that they were written in 16th-17th century England.
But where is the equivalent for this than given in the case of biblical literature. If it should be as you assume of a later date and copying some older prestigious models, where are these models "Vorbilder" we know nothing of?
Since this kind of literature ought have existed at the time point of the creation of that "later" biblical material, where has the illustrous model disappeared and why?
All the best,
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