[b-hebrew] The cause of the transferral of Israel's high priesthoodfrom Eleazar?
Harold R. Holmyard III
hholmyard at ont.com
Sat Jul 17 10:46:38 EDT 2004
>Chronicles "doctors" the genealogies. The Chronist makes Samuel a Levite,
>instead of an Ephraimite as in 1 Samuel 1:1, because in his time, with the
>Torah already out and operative, a non-Levite couldn't have assumed priestly
HH: It may be more complicated than that. Hannah
may have surrendered ownershp of the child in
1Sam. 1:11 And she made a vow, saying, "O LORD
Almighty, if you will only look upon your
servant's misery and remember me, and not forget
your servant but give her a son, then I will give
him to the LORD for all the days of his life, and
no razor will ever be used on his head."
HH: Even people, just as possessions, could be
dedicated to the Lord to become His property:
Lev. 27:28 ¶ "'But nothing that a man owns and
devotes to the LORD - whether man or animal or
family land - may be sold or redeemed; everything
so devoted is most holy to the LORD.
HH: And such dedicated people and things
consequently came into the possession of the
Num. 18:14 ¶ "Everything in Israel that is devoted to the LORD is yours.
Lev. 27:21 When the field is released in the
Jubilee, it will become holy, like a field
devoted to the LORD; it will become the property
of the priests.
HH: This is not a new idea. Albright suggested
that Samuel, though born in the tribe of Ephraim,
was attached to the tabernacle as a Nazirite and
was therefore drawn by Levitical tradition into
family attachment to the tribe of Levi.
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