[b-hebrew] epexegetical imperfect

Harold R. Holmyard III hholmyard at ont.com
Tue Dec 28 14:03:05 EST 2004

Dear C,

>I have a question about the translation of the so-called 
>"pluperfect".  In Genesis 2:19 some bible versions translate the 
>wayyiqtol "wayyatser" as "had formed", giving it an epexegetical 
>sense instead of translating it as a narrative wayyiqtol.  I know 
>opinions vary on this particular verse.  My question is this:
>Given that the English "God had formed" is used in the NIV, would it 
>be possible to use "having formed"?  This seems to change things a 
>bit, rendering a wayyiqtol (in apparent narrative) with an English 
>participle (in a dependent clause).  Would this be an acceptable 

HH: There is nothing I see that would subordinate the verb the way 
you would by using a particle. It is not modifying "brought."

>   Wouldn't the author likely have used a participle if this was 
>intended originally?

HH: He could have.

					Harold Holmyard

>C Meadows
>Marshall University
>>  From: Bill Rea <bsr15 at cantsl.it.canterbury.ac.nz>
>>  Date: 2004/12/21 Tue PM 04:43:50 CST
>>  To: b-hebrew at lists.ibiblio.org
>>  Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Isaiah 53:8 lamo
>>  Peter wrote:-
>>  >The semantics of the ShLM root in Hebrew are very varied ...
>>  [snip]
>>  >Older translations tried this by calling this sacrifice a "peace
>>  >offering", but scholars have realised that this is a misunderstanding,
>>  >and so this translation has now been abandoned.
>>  What do they consider it to be now?
>>  Thanks.
>>  Bill Rea, IT Services, Canterbury  University \_
>>  E-Mail bill.rea at canterbury.ac.nz              </   New
>>  Phone 64-3-364-2331, Fax  64-3-364-2332      /)  Zealand
>>  Unix Systems Administrator                  (/'
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