[b-hebrew] Isaiah 53:8
kwrandolph at email.com
Fri Dec 17 13:27:38 EST 2004
In a quick scan of the 62 verses where KMW or BMW are found, I did not notice once where they were used in other than the construct state. And as Peter Kirk mentioned, the construct state shortens the vowel under the prefix to a shewa.
Of the 57 verses where LMW is found, the vast majority have the LMW in the ordinate state (did I name it right?), hence the vowel under the prefix L- will be lengthened. This is a grammatical feature, apart from meaning.
Within Biblical Hebrew itself, there is no clue that the -MW suffix existed as other than a unit which, from its use, can be for a singular even though it is more often used for a plural. A speculated etymology may be interesting, but how it is actually used in the text in more important than a speculated etymology.
Karl W. Randolph.
----- Original Message -----
From: "Vadim Cherny" <vadim_lv at center-tv.net>
> But, anyway, the question boils down to the meaning - and, essentially,
> etymology of lamo.
> Vadim Cherny
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