[b-hebrew] Isaiah 53:8

Peter Kirk peterkirk at qaya.org
Wed Dec 15 14:12:39 EST 2004


On 15/12/2004 17:53, Karl Randolph wrote:

>...
>
>Now to the interpretations: is this a myth that is not true intended to serve as a metaphore to explain later events (e.g. Israel's invasion and subjugation of Canaan) as many people believe, or is it a record of actual historical events involving the individuals named, as I believe? Does it make a difference as far as analysing the linguistic form of the story itself? I don't think differing interpretations of the meaning of the story should affect a grammatical and linguistic analysis of the story itself. What do you say?
>
>  
>
Even if it is a fictional account written to explain later events, 
within the fictional world of the story the author's intention is surely 
a curse on the singular person Canaan. To interpret this as a plural or 
collective is to impose an anachronism, because within the world of the 
story Canaan is singular.

-- 
Peter Kirk
peter at qaya.org (personal)
peterkirk at qaya.org (work)
http://www.qaya.org/





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