[b-hebrew] Singers

Uri Hurwitz uhurwitz at yahoo.com
Tue Aug 10 11:26:03 EDT 2004


Any root with a medial Waw assumes this form in the Piel. You may wish to check this out.
 It seems to me there is no diffrerence in the meaning between the Qal and Piel in this case, which I believe was the original question.
 
Uri
  


"Lisbeth S. Fried" <lizfried at umich.edu> wrote:


Dear Peter, Yigal, et. al.,
First, thanks for thinking about this topic.
This lable for this form of the verb, polel, was new to me.
I had never thought about it as a separate form before.
Second, except for two other verses,
the polel of $yr appears only in Chronicles, Ezra, and Nehemiah.
The two other verses are Job 36:24 and Zeph. 2:14
(according to Bible Works, I should add I suppose).
So, my primary question is what is the thrust of the polel here?
and, secondly, can we conclude anything from the fact that
it is largely confined to Chronicles-Ezra-Nehemiah?
Thanks
Liz

> -----Original Message-----
> From: b-hebrew-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org [mailto:b-hebrew-
> bounces at lists.ibiblio.org] On Behalf Of Yigal Levin
> Sent: Tuesday, August 10, 2004 8:10 AM
> To: b-hebrew
> Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Singers
> 
> 
> ----- Original Message -----
> From: "Peter Kirk" 

> > >That's assuming that both the Deut. History AND Qohelet are pre-exilic,
> > >which most scholars would have reservations about.
> > >
> > >
> >
> > Their reservations might evaporate if they took this kind of linguistic
> > evidence seriously. There are real linguistic differences between the
> > clearly post-exilic books and the rest of the HB, which imply at least a
> > different time of composition and suggest a period of instability
> > allowing rapid language change. (On this hypothesis, Esther has to be
> > explained as deliberate archaising.)
> >
> > But I won't push for a pre-exilic Qohelet.
> >
> > --
> > Peter Kirk
> 
> I agree entirely that there are differences between pre- and post-exilic
> Hebrew, and I certainly don't subscribe to the "everything is late"
school.
> However, in this particular case, the difference between $arim and
me$orerim
> cannot be demonstrated to be only chronological: true that WE HAVE
me$orerim
> only in post-exilic books, but $arim is in both. Which is why I suggested
> looking at different usages.
> 
> Yigal
> 
> 
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