[b-hebrew] direct object marker deut 11:27
06PETERSON at cua.edu
Mon Aug 9 14:56:06 EDT 2004
>===== Original Message From "wattswestmaas" <wattswestmaas at eircom.net> =====
>Does the direct object marker in Deut 11:27 infer a verb that is not written
>IE "you have"?
No. This verse is a sentence fragment, continuing from the previous verse,
where you'll find the verb. It's the sort of thing we would handle in English
with a dash. The same goes for the following verse, although the marker is not
included there, probably because it governs both phrases.
>Would the sentence mean the same without it?
Generally speaking, yes, although it does help to signal the grammatical
connection between this verse and what precedes it.
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