[b-hebrew] RE: Feminine of noun abstacts that stand alone

David Kummerow farmerjoeblo at hotmail.com
Fri Aug 6 20:35:25 EDT 2004

Hi Chris,

Jouon-Muraoka seem to make the point that gender must be distinguished from 
gender ending (§89a). I'm aware that this is at least the case with 
double-gender plurals, where an -im ending emphasises the quantity whereas 
an -ot ending emphasises an entity consisting of indiviual parts. I think 
Diethelm Michel has looked at all of this as well as singular nouns in 
Grundlegung einer hebräischen Syntax: Teil 1: Sprachwissenschaftliche 
Methodik, Genus und Numerus des Nomens (Neukirchener, 1997) but I don't have 
a copy nor can I locate one.

David Kummerow.

>Message: 1
>Date: Fri, 6 Aug 2004 14:03:14 +0200
>From: "wattswestmaas" <wattswestmaas at eircom.net>
>Subject: [b-hebrew] Feminine of noun abstacts that stand alone.
>To: "B-Hebrew" <b-hebrew at lists.Ibiblio.org>
>Message-ID: <FAEIIKJEKGHNGLFNMDBCGEHCCCAA.wattswestmaas at eircom.net>
>Content-Type: text/plain;	charset="iso-8859-1"
>A two part question,,,
>Does the FEMINIE of a noun (especially when in most instances the noun is
>descended directly from the verb) sometimes carry the abstract idea of a
>more concrete definition?   I also think on some of the place names in both
>exodus and numbers that are in the feminine, when a masculine would seem
>just as appropriate.
>My second question INDIRECTLY related asks why the word for 'faith' in Deut
>32:20 is masculine since this is the ONLY occurence of the word in Masc, 
>I see no grammatical reason for this.  I have an archaic definition of the
>words in both masc and fem that say the former implies 'Established' and 
>latter 'to be fimly convinced'' but this is an after the fact matter and a
>classic tautology.
>Thankyou Chris.

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