[b-hebrew] Feminine of noun abstacts that stand alone.

wattswestmaas wattswestmaas at eircom.net
Fri Aug 6 08:03:14 EDT 2004

A two part question,,,

Does the FEMINIE of a noun (especially when in most instances the noun is
descended directly from the verb) sometimes carry the abstract idea of a
more concrete definition?   I also think on some of the place names in both
exodus and numbers that are in the feminine, when a masculine would seem
just as appropriate.

My second question INDIRECTLY related asks why the word for 'faith' in Deut
32:20 is masculine since this is the ONLY occurence of the word in Masc, and
I see no grammatical reason for this.  I have an archaic definition of the
words in both masc and fem that say the former implies 'Established' and the
latter 'to be fimly convinced'' but this is an after the fact matter and a
classic tautology.

Thankyou Chris.

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