[b-hebrew] A Greek Language Question
peterkirk at qaya.org
Thu Aug 5 16:38:26 EDT 2004
On 05/08/2004 21:14, Ken Penner wrote:
>Amenophei is in the dative case, here meaning "to" (The king communicated
>The phrase about Paapios immediately follows Amenophei: patros de Paapios
>onti. Onti is the participle of "be" in the dative case: "to [the one]
>being." Patros and Paapios are both gentive, and refer to the same person.
>Amenophei and onti are both dative, and refer to the same person.
>"The king communicated his desire to Amenophis (i.e., to the one who was
>[son] of father Paapias)."
>In 243, the king recalled the prediction para Amenophews tou Paapios. Here
>Amenophews is genitive, because it is governed by the preposition "para",
>here meaning "from". The phrase tou Paapios is likewise genitive ("of (the)
>Paapis"), but in light of 232, does not refer to Amenophis but to his
>father, as you thought originally.
>The news perturbed the king, who recalled the prediction from Amenophis
>[son] of Paapis.
Well, how can Marianne expect sensible help if she writes "Amenophis"
twice when the text is actually "Amenophei" and "Amenophews", and
repeats "ton" when the text reads "tou"?
peter at qaya.org (personal)
peterkirk at qaya.org (work)
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