[b-hebrew] changes in 'th'
peterkirk at qaya.org
Fri Apr 23 09:12:03 EDT 2004
On 23/04/2004 04:05, Trevor Peterson wrote:
>... I don't
>see any reason to associate tet with these forms--the emphatics are common to
>all Semitic languages, and where their pronunciation remains distinctive, it
>is always a double articulation, in combination with either ayin or alef.
Perhaps Karl was thinking this way because Hebrew tet corresponds
historically to Greek theta. But in classical Greek theta was an
aspirated plosive, not a fricative. And I remember seeing some
suggestion that in Phoenician, from which the Greek alphabet was
borrowed, tet was aspirated rather than pharyngealised. I'm not sure how
that could be established, except possibly from Greek or Latin
renderings of Phoenician or Carthaginian place names or texts. But
Hebrew tet does not seem to have been aspirated, because in LXX it is
consistently rendered by Greek tau, whereas Hebrew tav is more commonly
rendered by theta.
peter at qaya.org (personal)
peterkirk at qaya.org (work)
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