[b-hebrew] Re: Mark 15:34, Mat 27:46, & Psalm 22
sesamox at hotmail.com
Thu Apr 22 06:41:33 EDT 2004
As I stated, I'm not an expert, and I can't quote any expert, but I remember
having read that there is quite a bit of debate regarding the language of
first-century Jewish speakers, which must mean that there are different
opinions. For instance, I read in this list some time ago that a certain
Randall Buth has observed that Greek can distinguish between Aramaic and
Hebrew, so that when the GNT says something is in Hebrew, it means Hebrew.
Anyway, I don't want to debate which language did they speak, but what is
the explanation offered by those who believe Hebrew was the language spoken
in the first century.
>From: "Ken Penner" <pennerkm at mcmaster.ca>
>Reply-To: <pennerkm at mcmaster.ca>
>To: "'Sesamo m.'" <sesamox at hotmail.com>,<b-hebrew at lists.ibiblio.org>
>Subject: RE: [b-hebrew] Re: Mark 15:34, Mat 27:46, & Psalm 22
>Date: Wed, 21 Apr 2004 17:32:19 -0400
>Sergio, could you cite some experts who think Jesus spoke Hebrew _rather
>than_ Aramaic? Are you perhaps thinking of Birkeland, Grintz, and
>Nepper-Christiansen? More recent studies tend to suggest Jesus probably
>spoke Hebrew _in addition to_ Aramaic.
> > Also, I have a question about the word "samachthani", which I
> > think is
> > Aramaic. I know some experts think that Jesus spoke Hebrew
> > rather than
> > Aramaic. How can they explain this and other Aramaic
> > transliteration in the Gospels?
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