[b-hebrew] Psalm 19:2-3
kwrandolph at email.com
Tue Sep 23 14:24:41 EDT 2003
Look at the context. In verse two we have the heavens recounting and the expanse setting forth (as in reporting), then in verse three the day makes speech flow forth and the night declares knowledge.
Now how is the best way to translate this, particularly verse three? It looks as if I stuck my foot in my mouth in not recognizing the possibility that YWM LYWM is a figure of speech, but grammatically then this figure of speech is the subject of the verb. In this verse it does not look as if it is used adverbially. Probably then Each day is the closest equivelant into English.
Esther 3:7 again is not adverbial, for Haman cast lots for each day and each month to find the most auspicious day for his bloody deed.
Agreed, each day is usually used adverbially, but not always.
YWMM is the word for daily
Yours, Karl W. Randolph.
----- Original Message -----
From: Peter Kirk <peterkirk at qaya.org>
> On 22/09/2003 23:43, CS Bartholomew wrote:
> >On 9/22/03 8:06 AM, "Pastor Mark Eddy" <markeddy at adams.net> wrote:
> >>What is the subject of the verbs AMaR and YHaWeH (yod-chet-waw-heh) in Psalm
> >>19:3? Is one YOM telling something to another YOM, and one LaYLaH revealing
> >>something to another (as in NASB)? Or is HaRaQiYa' of verse 2 the subject of
> >>the verbs in verse 3, with the time references being adverbial (as the NIV
> >>seems to read it)? And how do we know? All the nouns are masculine singular,
> >>so they agree with the masculine singular verbs.
> >Returning to Pastor Eddy's question:
> >Take a look at mywM lywM in the following:
> >Psa. 96:2 #yrw lyhwh brkw #mw b#rw mywM lywM y#w(tw
> >Esth. 3:7 bxd# hr)#wN hw) xd# nysN b#nt #tyM (#rh lmlK )x#wrw# hpyl pwr hw)
> >hgwrl lpny hmN mywM lywM wmxd# lxd# #nyM (#r hw) xd# )dr s
> >Looks like mywM lywM is adverbial does it not?
> >Now could ywM lywM in Psa. 19:3 be another way of encoding mywM lywM ?
> >Psa. 19:3 ywM lywM yby( )mr wlylh llylh yxwh d(t
> >I suspect that it is just that, but I am just a Hellenist so my opinion
> >doesn't have any weight.
> >Clay Bartholomew
> YOWM is certainly regularly used adverbially without any preposition.
> There are a lot of examples in BDB sense 7, pp.399-400. See especially
> sense 7e (1) (abridged here):
> YOWM YOWM /day by day/ Gn 39:10 Ex 16:5 Pr 8:30,34 Ps 61:9 68:20
> YOWM B.:YOWM 2Ch 30:21 Ne 8:18
> YOWM WFYOWM Est 3:4
> Since YOWM YOWM, YOWM B.:YOWM and MIY.OWM L:YOWM all mean "day by day",
> it seems reasonable that YOWM L:YOWM can also mean the same thing.
> Peter Kirk
> peter at qaya.org (personal)
> peterkirk at qaya.org (work)
Sign-up for your own personalized E-mail at Mail.com
CareerBuilder.com has over 400,000 jobs. Be smarter about your job search
More information about the b-hebrew