[b-hebrew] Psalm 19:2-3
jacksonpollock at earthlink.net
Tue Sep 23 02:43:18 EDT 2003
On 9/22/03 8:06 AM, "Pastor Mark Eddy" <markeddy at adams.net> wrote:
> What is the subject of the verbs AMaR and YHaWeH (yod-chet-waw-heh) in Psalm
> 19:3? Is one YOM telling something to another YOM, and one LaYLaH revealing
> something to another (as in NASB)? Or is HaRaQiYa' of verse 2 the subject of
> the verbs in verse 3, with the time references being adverbial (as the NIV
> seems to read it)? And how do we know? All the nouns are masculine singular,
> so they agree with the masculine singular verbs.
Returning to Pastor Eddy's question:
Take a look at mywM lywM in the following:
Psa. 96:2 #yrw lyhwh brkw #mw b#rw mywM lywM y#w(tw
Esth. 3:7 bxd# hr)#wN hw) xd# nysN b#nt #tyM (#rh lmlK )x#wrw# hpyl pwr hw)
hgwrl lpny hmN mywM lywM wmxd# lxd# #nyM (#r hw) xd# )dr s
Looks like mywM lywM is adverbial does it not?
Now could ywM lywM in Psa. 19:3 be another way of encoding mywM lywM ?
Psa. 19:3 ywM lywM yby( )mr wlylh llylh yxwh d(t
I suspect that it is just that, but I am just a Hellenist so my opinion
doesn't have any weight.
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