[b-hebrew] syntax question

Peter Kirk peterkirk at qaya.org
Wed Sep 3 13:54:30 EDT 2003


On 03/09/2003 09:48, Liz Fried wrote:

>Dear Peter,
>This is interesting. I'm reading now GKC 115e-g, and there there are
>sentences which have a subject of an infinitive in the nominative,
>but they have to be translated with a relative clause in English -- just the
>opposite of what I'm talking about, and very surprising to me.
>So  JOb 34:22 lehisater $am poaley aven (that the workers of iniquity
>may hide themselves). Oh, but you could equally translate it, "for the
>workers
>of iniquity to hide." But this is not the same, because this clause is not
>the object of another verb.
>  
>
GKC's terminology is old-fashioned, and they try to make a distinction 
between "nominative" and "genitive" on the basis of whether or not there 
is a construct chain. But the rule seems to be that a noun or personal 
suffix following an infinitive construct is normally to be taken as the 
subject of the verb, unless marked as an object with 'et.

Many different languages have similar constructions with different 
details. In English we can say "I foresee him marrying her" or "I 
foresee his marrying her", but "I want him to marry her".  Greek always 
uses two accusatives. For Arabic, see GKC's footnote on p.355. 
Azerbaijani must use something like "his to marry her", where the 
genitive is always the subject.

>  
>
>>Surely the construction you are looking for is something like XPC +
>>infinitive construct + personal suffix. But I can only find one possible
>>example in the HB, Job 33:32. In such a case the personal suffix is
>>regularly subjective, see GKC 115c, so NIV's "I want you to be cleared"
>>is more likely than "I want to justify you".
>>    
>>
>I dunno, I think it's a noun, no? I want your justification, or your
>aquittal.
>
Maybe. But the noun would be unique, or rather perhaps the Masoretes 
have pointed it as a verb.


-- 
Peter Kirk
peter at qaya.org (personal)
peterkirk at qaya.org (work)
http://www.qaya.org/





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