[b-hebrew] linguistics, was Re: Prov. 30:19

Peter Kirk peterkirk at qaya.org
Sat Oct 11 08:15:40 EDT 2003


On 10/10/2003 15:47, Karl Randolph wrote:

>Dear Peter:
>
>I think I recognize where our differences lie: it is philosophic with linguistic overtones, and not linguistic per se.
>
>...
>
>Do you agree that we are dealing with differences that are more philosophical than linguistic? If so, we should leave off arguing as linguistic arguments will not resolve philosophical differences.
>
>Karl W. Randolph.
>
>  
>
If you philosophy is that over the past 1000-3000 years there has been 
such a fundamental change in human nature, intelligence, language 
capabilities etc (even sex drives if you don't understand the issue of 
the way of a man with a girl) that we cannot assume any similarity 
between ancient and modern human beings, yes your philosophy does differ 
from mine, and the difference will not be resolved quickly. I think you 
will find plenty of evidence against your position in ancient texts 
which show that ancient humans were very like modern ones except for the 
technology etc. But it takes more than evidence to change basic 
philosophical presuppositions.

-- 
Peter Kirk
peter at qaya.org (personal)
peterkirk at qaya.org (work)
http://www.qaya.org/





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