Psalm 110 was Re: [b-hebrew] LORD

Yigal Levin Yigal-Levin at utc.edu
Mon Mar 3 09:39:49 EST 2003


I've already mentioned one (anonymus) interpretaion that I've come across,
by which the writer is Eliezer, speaking of YHWH saying to his master -
Abraham - "you will be like Melchizedek". I since also been alerted to
Kimhi's interpretation, by which David wrote the psalm for the Levites to
recite in the Temple (or tent - let's not get technical), about the promise
made by YHWH to THEIR master - David. It seems that the possibilities are
endless.

Yigal


At 11:17 PM 3/3/2003 +1100, Peter Kirk wrote:
>Sorry to come into this late, I have been away. But I must disagree with
>Mark's "I think everyone agrees that those words are not spoken to David."
>Surely this is a rather probable interpretation of the psalm, in its
>original context, by those who do not insist that David must have been the
>author.
>
>We have three persons (not the trinity!) referred to in this verse: YHWH,
>the psalmist, and the psalmist's master ('adon). They must be distinct
>persons, we assume.
>
>If we don't insist that the psalmist is David, the most straightforward
>interpretation is that the psalmist is a courtier and his (or her) lord is a
>king or other high status individual, possibly a priest. If the title LDWD
>is not taken to indicate authorship, it may indicate that the master is in
>fact King David. This would fit well with the reference to Melchizedek,
>ancient priest-king of Jerusalem: after David captures Jerusalem, he takes
>on the dual role of Melchizedek, and this psalm may have originated at his
>enthronement ceremony.
>
>If we insist that the psalmist is David, then his master must be someone
>else. Conceivably it could be King Saul, for whom David sang songs (and I
>presuppose some historicity of the books of Samuel here, otherwise it is
>meaningless to write of David). Or even Solomon as Ben suggested, but would
>David have called his son "my lord"? The Christian interpretation is of
>course that David's master is the Messiah - though Christian understandings
>have often been confused by the double use of KURIOS in the New Testament
>quotations of this verse, following or followed by the LXX as in the great
>4th century MSS.
>
>How would the Jewish scholars on the list react to the suggestion that this
>is Messianic, i.e. "my lord" is a prophetic reference to the Messiah?
>
>Peter Kirk
>peter.r.kirk at ntlworld.com
>http://web.onetel.net.uk/~peterkirk/
> 
>
>> -----Original Message-----
>> From: b-hebrew-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org [mailto:b-hebrew-
>> bounces at lists.ibiblio.org] On Behalf Of Pastor Mark Eddy
>> Sent: 15 February 2003 06:03
>> To: b-hebrew at lists.ibiblio.org
>> Subject: Re: Psalm 110 was Re: [b-hebrew] LORD
>> 
><snip>
>
>> ... Verse 4 again has YHWH address David's "Lord" with the words, "You are
>> a priest forever..." I think
>> everyone agrees that those words are not spoken to David. Verse 6 is where
>> the address switches from
>> second to third person. It seems best to apply them also to David's "Lord"
>> rather than to YHWH.
>> 
>> I hope this answers your question.
>> Mark Eddy
>> 
>
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Dr. Yigal Levin
Dept. of Philosophy and Religion
University of Tennessee at Chattanooga
615 McCallie Avenue
Chattanooga TN 37403-2598
U.S.A.


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