[b-hebrew] Basic question on Qal, Piel, and Pual

Uri Hurwitz uhurwitz at yahoo.com
Thu Jul 24 15:33:01 EDT 2003

Yigal Levin <Yigal-Levin at utc.edu> wrote: inter alia,
. We have very little
"internal" evidence of the difference between Qal and Piel. In fact,
remember that even the consonantal text that we have is the product of
later transmission - we just don't have the "untouched" original text.
However in the case of Hebrew, we do have a tradition of pronunciation
going back 1500 years, much closer to the source than we are. To me, this
is the obvious place to start. Once we learn what the Masoretes had to tell
us about the text, we can then also reasonably question them.


    One may add the example of another living Semitic language, Arabic. It  has of course the equivalent to the Heb . Piel, which is also undistiguishable from Qal in normal unvowelled texts in the perfect tense, though clearly  -  because of the emphais (shadda) -  different in pronounciation.


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Dr. Yigal Levin
Dept. of Philosophy and Religion
University of Tennessee at Chattanooga
615 McCallie Avenue
Chattanooga TN 37403-2598
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