[b-hebrew] Potiphar's title
Banyai at t-online.de
Thu Jul 10 17:06:06 EDT 2003
I meant that it easy to evidence loanwords from strongly differing languages but harder to demonstrate this in the concrete case for the related language families.
Furthermore there is nothing you can demonstrate by evidencing a loanword. Who says that the bible has been handled to us word for word in the virgin manner fresh from the pen of the first original writer? We have numberless examples of later redactional interventions into the text. On the lexical level you will never be able to demonstrate anything.
You are systematicaly fading away many alternative explanations.
People with a small bias are trying to demonstrate permanently their point and ignore any easy alternative explanation at hand.
> Dear Dave,
> Are you saying that AT NO TIME EVER did the Hebrews accept into the Hebrew
> language "loanwords" ?
> If you DO ALLOW that "loanwords" could have been accepted into the Hebrew
> language why the "fuss" ?
> Regards, Walter
> Walter Reinhold Warttig Mattfeld, M.A. Ed.
> mattfeld12 at charter.net
> b-hebrew mailing list
> b-hebrew at lists.ibiblio.org
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