[b-hebrew] Potiphar's title
dwashbur at nyx.net
Thu Jul 10 13:12:37 EDT 2003
On Thursday 10 July 2003 10:38, Walter R. Mattfeld wrote:
> Dave Washburn wrote:
> "Why do we have to assume that the term resulted from direct borrowing from
> Akkadian term? The most we can say, ISTM, is that they are related, most
> likely both descending from a proto-Semitic term. The fact that the two
> terms seem to be related cannot be adduced as proof that the Hebrew term is
> nothing more than a loanword that came about because of Assyrian conquest.
> This strikes me as nothing more than another unfounded assumption, based on
> the notion that the Hebrews never had an original thought in their
> Dear Dave,
> Are you saying that AT NO TIME EVER did the Hebrews accept into the Hebrew
> language "loanwords" ?
Please don't put words in my fingers, Walter. You know that's not what I
> If you DO ALLOW that "loanwords" could have been accepted into the Hebrew
> language why the "fuss" ?
See Michael's post.
"God does a lot of things in the Psalms
that He can't get away with in systematic theology."
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