[b-hebrew] A question

Peter Kirk peter.r.kirk at ntlworld.com
Thu Jul 3 07:34:20 EDT 2003


On 02/07/2003 22:28, Pere Porta Roca wrote:

>I'm asking: the holam generally written on the aleph in such words as in Jb
>30:16 (3d. word before the end of verse), in Jr 13:21 (4th word before the
>end of verse), should it not be put on the preceding iod instead of on the
>aleph?
>
>
>Does anyone of you know if in today Israeli hebrew must this holam be
>written as a waw (a waw that should be written between the iod and the
>aleph)?
>
>My advanced heartly thanks to those who will replay.
>
>Pere
>
>
>  
>
I remember recommending that in BH texts such a holam should be encoded 
as if following the preceding consonant, yod in this case, and that the 
move to the following aleph (only I think if there is no other vowel on 
the aleph) should be a matter of rendering in the font. A commoner 
example is the word ro'sh, "head", the start of which must be 
distinguished from the start of r:'oh (Gen 48:11, shewa under resh, 
holam at left side of aleph), the infinitive construct of r'h "see".

-- 
Peter Kirk
peter.r.kirk at ntlworld.com
http://web.onetel.net.uk/~peterkirk/





More information about the b-hebrew mailing list