Banyai at t-online.de
Tue Sep 24 16:28:00 EDT 2002
Dear Ian, would you have read my mail exchange a couple of days ago with Yigal Levin would have get your answer before stating the question:
the Bileam prophecies are missatributed texts of Samuel. The evidence is heavy, beginning with the reference to Agag, king of the Amalekites, (appearing in 1 Samuel to) and of the Kenites in the same verse of 1 Samuel, in association with the Amalekites.
The Assyrians began during the reigns of Tiglatpileser I (1115-1076 )and Assur-bel-Kala (1074-1057)a number of campaigns which led them to the Levante and produced some of the earliest naval expeditions known from Assyrian sources.
This brings Samuels biography in close contact to the Assyrians, whose approaching may have determined the Israelites to begin their liberation struggle in the hope to obtain help from them.
King Saul should have reigned during his second regnal term 22 years according to Josephus. This brings on the assumption of the historicity of this figure Samuel at ante 1033 BC, thus close to Assur-bel-Kala.
The rest you can make out for yourself alone.
All the best,
"Ian Hutchesson" <mc2499 at mclink.it> schrieb:
> Does anyone have thoughts on the significance of this verse
> which talks of ships coming from Kittim to afflict Asshur
> and Eber, (given that Assyria was a landlocked country -- at
> least until the ninth century BCE)?
> Could, for example, this Asshur be related not to Assyria
> (the evil empire we know and love), but to Syria? There
> does seem to be some alternation between the two: Josephus
> calls the Seleucids kings of Assyria and Lucian from the
> northern Syrian city of Samosata calls himself an Assyrian.
> Is there any way to make sense of the verse as it was
> written, given the problem of ships afflicting a landlocked
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