Is R)$YT even a "time" word?

Peter Kirk Peter_Kirk at
Sat Mar 30 14:35:16 EST 2002

Liz, I have admitted that the LXX translators and the Vulgate may have
been influenced by Greek philosophy, as has practically everyone west of
the Indus since the time of Alexander. (I was responding to certain
implications by others that Rashi's understanding was that of all who
went before him.) But I don't see that as settling the original
exegetical question either way.

Peter Kirk

> -----Original Message-----
> From: Lisbeth S. Fried [mailto:lizfried at]
> Sent: 29 March 2002 17:38
> To: Biblical Hebrew
> Subject: RE: Is R)$YT even a "time" word?
> Dear Peter,
> You don't think, deep in your heart, even a tiny bit
> that the LXX and the Vulgate were influenced by
> Arisotle???
> You said that Rashi had his own ax to grind.
> In fact, I'm sure that the rabbis also believed in creatio
> ex nihilo.
> THey were just as Hellenized as anyone else.
> According to an orthodox rabbi I know, it is heresy to think
> otherwise.
> Rashi does not deny the principle, he denies that the bible
> talks about it.
> And Isaiah denies that God created tohu, and he is a LOT
> closer to
> the original writers than either the LXX or the Vulgate.
> Give it up.
> Liz
> > -----Original Message-----
> > From: Peter Kirk [mailto:Peter_Kirk at]
> > Sent: Fri, March 29, 2002 2:34 AM
> > To: Biblical Hebrew
> > Subject: RE: Is R)$YT even a "time" word?
> >
> >
> > Thanks to all who sent me the Vulgate text. I
> > think this demonstrates
> > (for what it's worth) that the Hebrew was
> > understood in the 4th century
> > CE, by Jerome and the Jews of Bethlehem who
> > helped him, in the sense "In
> > the beginning God created..."
> >
> > Peter Kirk
> >

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