Is R)$YT even a "time" word?

Paul Zellmer smdirect at
Thu Mar 21 11:25:53 EST 2002


A couple days ago I asked you why you are even so sure that R)$YT is even a
"time" word.  I repeat that the word as used throughout the Tanach seems to
be describing *what* it is that comes at the start of a series, not the
*time* the series starts.  I don't see your basis for taking it the same way
as, say, YWM, which clearly specifies a unit of time.

If we remove the "time word" or "time phrase" element, that sort of shoots
your whole debate in the foot, what?

Paul Zellmer

> -----Original Message-----
> From: Ian Hutchesson [mailto:mc2499 at]
> Sent: Thursday, March 21, 2002 11:07 AM
> To: Biblical Hebrew
> Subject: Re: bereshit (translations) Paul
> >Ian, what is the relevance of "six day creation" here? I don't think
> >anyone on this thread has promoted this teaching. I certainly have not.
> I have. It is the literary structure of the creation itself.
> The first act of the creation is when God "turned on the lights"
> as was said in an earlier incarnation of this subject. Before
> that moment creation hadn't begun. To argue creative events
> before then would nullify the intent of the sabbath day of rest
> imposed on the creation.
> >It is certainly not generally true that "all b-nouns are qualified".
> I am referring only to time phrases. I have dealt with the
> qualifications before:
> 1) adjective;
> 2) construct;
> 3) clause;
> 4) anaphoric reference;
> Can you think of any b-noun time phrase which is not qualified
> in any way?
> Ian
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