bereshit (translations)

Polycarp66 at Polycarp66 at
Mon Mar 18 22:28:51 EST 2002

In a message dated 3/18/2002 5:19:03 PM Eastern Standard Time, 
mc2499 at writes:

> This is turning your back on evidence and opting for 
> the modern English translation as your argument. This 
> unfortunately is no argument. The reason for what you 
> see in modern English translations is clear and I have 
> already explained it. This has nothing to do with 
> the original text as the Vulgate, LXX, Schlach and 
> Italian translations show you.
> _

I hardly think this is a just accusation.  As I understand Peter, he was 
speaking of the Hebrew when he said  "if I see convincing evidence that a 
b-noun time phrase in Hebrew can govern more than one finite clause 
coordinated by w-, then . . ."  That he would make a comparison with English 
does not signify that he is relying on English.  Sometimes I get the 
impression that the two of you would disagree on any very simple matter 
simply for the sake of disagreeing - and I mean both of you.


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