bereshit and mereshit.

Peter Kirk Peter_Kirk at sil.org
Sun Mar 17 15:23:32 EST 2002


We see the same understanding in the LXX of Gen 1:1, which is earlier
than John 1:1 (probably!) and clearly translated bereshit as an
absolute: EN ARCHi EPOIHSEN... "In beginning made...", where "made" is
unambiguously a finite verb. This is a clear witness to how Gen 1:1 was
understood at a time long before Rashi's time, much closer to the
original author's time especially if, as I think Ian believes, he or she
wrote in the Hellenistic period.

Peter Kirk

> -----Original Message-----
> From: Paul Zellmer [mailto:pzellmer at sc.rr.com]
> Sent: 17 March 2002 14:09
> To: Biblical Hebrew
> Subject: RE: bereshit and mereshit.
> 
<snip>

... In the GNT, in John 1:1, we have
> the
> Greek equivalent of BR'$YT with no completing thought.  If that did
not
> give
> pause to these following at least one of the traditional lines some
2000
> years ago, who are we to say that doing this with Gen 1:1 should
require
> the
> BARA clause to be subordinate in this case?
>
<snip>





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