bereshit and mereshit.
Peter_Kirk at sil.org
Sun Mar 17 15:23:32 EST 2002
We see the same understanding in the LXX of Gen 1:1, which is earlier
than John 1:1 (probably!) and clearly translated bereshit as an
absolute: EN ARCHi EPOIHSEN... "In beginning made...", where "made" is
unambiguously a finite verb. This is a clear witness to how Gen 1:1 was
understood at a time long before Rashi's time, much closer to the
original author's time especially if, as I think Ian believes, he or she
wrote in the Hellenistic period.
> -----Original Message-----
> From: Paul Zellmer [mailto:pzellmer at sc.rr.com]
> Sent: 17 March 2002 14:09
> To: Biblical Hebrew
> Subject: RE: bereshit and mereshit.
... In the GNT, in John 1:1, we have
> Greek equivalent of BR'$YT with no completing thought. If that did
> pause to these following at least one of the traditional lines some
> years ago, who are we to say that doing this with Gen 1:1 should
> BARA clause to be subordinate in this case?
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