Ex nihilo? Was Raqiyah
dwashbur at nyx.net
Thu Jul 25 09:52:11 EDT 2002
> Dear Dave,
> There is evidence that the aorist does not signal pasttense, but only the perfective aspect, even
> though it has in most cases past reference. Two recent dissertations have argued for that. One
> example of an aorist with future reference is Jude 1:14 in the NT. As far as I am aware, there is
> no example of Greek imperfect with non-past reference, so I conclude that it signals both past
> tense and the imperfective aspect.
I'm not going to pursue this any further because it's taking us too far
away from Hebrew. However, I will say that a) there is evidence to
the contrary, as well; b) details of these "two recent dissertations"
would be nice; c) Jude 14 (this is the correct way of referring to it,
since Jude has only one chapter) is clearly a "prophetic past," a
common phenomenon in biblical and related literature and thus a
special case that doesn't tell us much about the actual force of the
aorist, and d) I think we all agree that Ian's notion about the aorist in
Gen 1:1 is unlikely from a grammatical POV.
You know you're a lousy artist when you can't
draw a straight line on an Etch-a-Sketch.
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