Language code switching in Daniel/Syriakh

Randall Buth ButhFam at compuserve.com
Tue Jan 1 17:13:07 EST 2002


shalom Martin, 

>
>> Every good dictionary will tell you that SYRIAKH
>> is the word for Aramaic in Greek and so used,
>> with by-forms, wherever ... LXX, Josephus,
>> Aristeas, etc.
>
>Yes, but what does this prove about the meaning of "hebrais"? When I say
>that the English word "vehicle" may comprise a car or a lorry this is not
>disproved by the fact that there is the special English word "lorry".

Well, ebraidi means "Hebrew". The burden of proof is on those who 
claim it means 'Aramaic', too. 
As I said, in all Greek lit. it is only place names in the NT
where a non-Hebrew etymology comes into play. Hardly convincing 
evidence, unless one has already assumed that only Aramaic is a viable 
option for the first century. 
Place-names and proper names transcend language, as my examples in the 
last email showed. (+ Greek, Aramaic, Hebrew names 
switch all the time in Jewish documents. Did you know that the earliest
non-
NT petros-name is "Petros" from the 2nd CE in Hebrew sources? Petros as 
a Hebrew name! Petros means 'rock' in Hebrew. And bar/ben kosiba 
mixes his Aramaic and Hebrew names/titles freely.)

>
>When Paul told abot the speech from heaven (according to Acts 26) he
wanted
>to make clear that this man in heaven used the same language which Jesus
>used, when he was on earth (because Paul wanted to say that this Jesus
>raised from the dead and went to heaven, see the context in Acts 26).>

Several logical jumps here. 
First, Paul says Hebrew. That's good testimony.
Second, "same language" [sic] implies monolingualism again in your starting

assumption. Third, 'sameness' is not the focus of Paul's argument, Jesus' 
identity is declared and the resurrection is argued, but if sameness of
teaching
language were the language point, then it would imply Hebrew as Jesus 
teaching language, like all the other 20 or so Galilean teachers whose 
oral teachings have been passed on from the 1st century.


>Some original forms of what Jesus said (according to the gospels):
>- "barjona", Mat 16:17
>- "boanerges", Mark 3:17
>- "talita koum(i)", Mark 5:41
>- "ephata", Mark 7:34
>- "abba", Mark 14:36
>- "eloi, eloi lema  sabachtani", Mark 15:34
>- "kephas", John 1:42.

Only Mk 5.41, 7.34, and 15.34 are relevant as sayings and all in special 
contexts. Ever notice that none of Jesus teaching is given in these words? 
(abba and bene-ra`am are Hebrew, though Mark has Grecized this last 
into 'shout-workrs') The functions of the healing accounts probably give 
an 'otherworldly/power' ambiance. And Aramaic as a language switch and 
as a magic language is indeed interesting. 

Are you acquainted with Moshe Bar-Asher's writings, or Abba Bendavid? 

yisge shlamax
Randall Buth



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