Fw: Hebrew Syntax., 2 Sam 15:37

Alviero Niccacci alviero.niccacci at studiumbiblicum.org
Wed Apr 17 16:37:19 EDT 2002

>Dear Bryan,
>Thank you for your answer. To be frank, your interpretation shows in 
>my view how unassailable discourse analysis is when it is applied to 
>Hebrew verbs. I would go so far as to say that discourse analysis, 
>as it is applied in studies of the Hebrew verbs, has all the 
>potentials for hiding the meaning of the verbal system.


>I know about your great knowledge of Hebrew, and with full respect 
>for you as a scholar, I argue that discourse analysis leads you 


Dear B-H list members,

I do not want to get involved in discussions because I am taken by 
many things but I can not resist.
	Rolf, again you are insisting in your views--which is of 
course legitimate--even in rather resolute terms when you argue that 
discourse analysis leads Bryan--and presumably other "discourse 
linguists"--astray. Personally, although I happen to be listed among 
them, I rather follow text linguistics, an European approach to the 
text as communication.
	Any way, Rolf, if one is not ready to distinguish different 
levels of communication, one will never explain why, e.g., in Gen 
3:14 a wayyiqtol form is used in the introduction of direct speech 
while in 3:16 and 3:17 a x-qatal form is used instead, i.e.,
- 3:14 WAYYO'MER YHWH 'elohîm 'el-hannaxa$
- 3,16 'el ha'i$$â 'AMAR
- 3:17 ûle'adam 'AMAR.

This also applies to NT Greek, with aorist vs. imperfect, e.g., in 
the Gospel of Luke chap. 12:
- 12:13 EIPEN de tis ex tou oxlou
- 12:14 ho de EIPEN autôi
- 12:15 EIPEN de pros autous <...>
- 12:54 ELEGEN de kai tois oxlois.

Both verb form/constructions (wayyiqtol and x-qatal in Biblical 
Hebrew, aorist and imperfect in NT Greek) occur one next to the 
other, apparently they "mean" the same thing, therefore they are the 
same. If someone is satisfy with this conclusion, OK, I am not, and 
other people are not as well. Shouldn't we think that if different 
verb forms/constructions are used, something different is meant? If 
so, we have to look for appropriate, good examples that can show more 
clearly than others the difference, then enlarge the research, and 
eventually confirm or modify our conclusions.
	Rolf, I rapidly went through the examples you quoted in your 
post (left out above) and I think that I can analyze them according 
to the theory I am proposing, but frankly I can not at present. 
Besides, I remember that in the past in this forum I offered you 
alternative analyses of passages that in your view demonstrated that 
different verb forms meant the same thing, and after considerable 
effort both you and I remained of the same opinion.

Best wishes.
Alviero Niccacci
Studium Biblicum Franciscanum
PO Box 19424, 91193 Jerusalem (Israel)
Tel. +972-2-6282936; 6264516/7 + extension 250; Fax +972-2-6264519
Home Page: http://www.custodia.org/sbf
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