Isaiah 40:26

GregStffrd at GregStffrd at
Thu Jul 19 18:59:27 EDT 2001

In a message dated Thu, 19 Jul 2001 10:54:42 AM Eastern Daylight Time, alanf00 at writes:

> I'd like to thank everyone for their comments regarding my question about the proper translation of Isaiah 40:26. 
> Since the topic is still ongoing and many participants may be on holiday, I'll reserve comments until later.


I was not aware of any ongoing aspect of this thread, or that any participants' holiday schedule had gotten  in the way of their being able to address comments made previously. But since you have brought this issue back up, let us by all means pursue it. 

What comments do you have about the issue which you say you are holding for a later time? Can you share them now? I am sure those of us not on holiday would like to comment. 

On a somewhat related subject, and in response to a List-member's earlier questions, you wrote, in part:

> The following list of translators is a compilation from a variety of sources:

Before I comment on some of the things you mentioned, can you please give us a complete listing of the sources from which you gathered your material?

Thank you.

Greg Stafford

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