Isaiah Query

Peter Kirk Peter_Kirk at sil.org
Tue Jul 17 06:19:08 EDT 2001


Yes, I appreciate the intended target audience. But many Christian scholars,
translators, preachers etc find the JPS Tanakh very helpful. I especially
appreciate it for sticking to the Hebrew text and not wandering off into the
Greek or speculative emendation, and for its exegesis which is largely
independent of the Christian tradition. But such helpfulness to outsiders is
compromised by this kind of issue, which outsiders will not understand.

On Soren's point re John 7:53-8:11, at least there is some textual evidence
here, and then there is the question of who defines the NT canon. (By the
way, I didn't use the word "absurdity".) The situation is rather different
with the end of Isaiah because I don't think anyone is suggesting that this
is part of the canon in any sense, rather that it is a reading convention.

It is interesting that no less than four books in the Hebrew Bible end on a
sudden negative note. I wonder if there is some significance to this,
perhaps a feeling, the opposite of the more modern one, that it is wrong
(either stylistically or theologically) to end on a positive note. Any
thoughts?

Peter Kirk

> -----Original Message-----
> From: Numberup at worldnet.att.net [mailto:Numberup at worldnet.att.net]
> Sent: 17 July 2001 05:04
> To: Biblical Hebrew
> Subject: Re: Isaiah Query
>
>
> True, Peter, but I suppose that the majority of the target
> readers of the new
> translation by the [i]Jewish[/i] Publication Society's Tanakh,
> "according to the
> traditional Hebrew text," would understand.
>
> Others have recourse to the scholars on b-hebrew.   :)
>
> Solomon Landers
>
> Peter Kirk wrote:
>
> > But it does seem strange that in the JPS "Tanakh" this verse is
> printed at
> > the end, admittedly in a slightly smaller font size, with no footnote or
> > other explanation either at that place or in the Preface -
> especially when
> > this translation is otherwise so careful to note any departures from the
> > Masoretic text. Far be it from me to criticise Jewish customs.
> But such a
> > practice would certainly not be acceptable in a Christian
> translation, and
> > probably not (unless it could be argued that the author's
> intended meaning
> > is actually better reflected in English by the amended version)
> in one done
> > according to normal secular criteria.
> >
> > Peter Kirk
> >
>
>
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