2 Ki 2:23-24

Daniel Wagner dan.wagner at netzero.net
Mon Jul 16 14:24:53 EDT 2001


Are you claiming that ancient BH writer(s) were incapable of free variation? Is that a uniquely modern literary discovery? Is it not a acceptable "reason" to use a particular word for literary/stylistic purposes alone?

(I am not intending to argue for free variation in this particular context necessarily, but asking the larger question of whether it is possible in general.)

Dan Wagner

----- Original Message ----- 
From: Shoshanna Walker <rosewalk at concentric.net>
To: Biblical Hebrew <b-hebrew at franklin.oit.unc.edu>
Sent: Monday, July 16, 2001 12:25 PM
Subject: Re: 2 Ki 2:23-24

> In the Torah, every single word is there for a reason, even some words are
> missing letters, etc. - it is all very precise.
> You can't really have a full understanding by just brushing it off as
> "variety"
> Rashi says that his voice was that of a youth.
> I don't have all the commentators in front of me, nor would I be able to
> understand them all, but they do address this.
> Shoshanna

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