2 Ki 2:23-24
dan.wagner at netzero.net
Mon Jul 16 14:24:53 EDT 2001
Are you claiming that ancient BH writer(s) were incapable of free variation? Is that a uniquely modern literary discovery? Is it not a acceptable "reason" to use a particular word for literary/stylistic purposes alone?
(I am not intending to argue for free variation in this particular context necessarily, but asking the larger question of whether it is possible in general.)
----- Original Message -----
From: Shoshanna Walker <rosewalk at concentric.net>
To: Biblical Hebrew <b-hebrew at franklin.oit.unc.edu>
Sent: Monday, July 16, 2001 12:25 PM
Subject: Re: 2 Ki 2:23-24
> In the Torah, every single word is there for a reason, even some words are
> missing letters, etc. - it is all very precise.
> You can't really have a full understanding by just brushing it off as
> Rashi says that his voice was that of a youth.
> I don't have all the commentators in front of me, nor would I be able to
> understand them all, but they do address this.
No Banner Ads and Unlimited Access
Sign Up Today - Only $9.95 per month!
More information about the b-hebrew