diachronics and Dt priority

Bearpecs at aol.com Bearpecs at aol.com
Thu Jul 12 23:54:34 EDT 2001

In a message dated 7/12/01 9:27:47 AM Eastern Daylight Time, 
decaen at chass.utoronto.ca writes:

> P so clearly falls in the late
> Persian/early Hellenistic period, linguistically...?

Why do we assume that "P" is monolithic and all written at the same time?  
Why do we assume that ancient texts aren't updated in language?  We've all 
read Chaucer, but many haven't read his work in Middle English.
Milgrom suggests that the final redaction of Torah was by a post-exilic H 
tradent, but that most of H and P (which precedes H) is pre-exilic.

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