Peter_Kirk at sil.org
Tue Feb 6 04:11:56 EST 2001
Well, by "perhaps misleading" I had in mind the translation of `alma as
parthenos at Isaiah 7:14, which may or may not be misleading. Of course this
is not the only place where the LXX is an inaccurate translation of the
Hebrew. I doubt if Jesus quoted from LXX as he was probably speaking Hebrew
or Aramaic (though very likely he knew some Greek as well). To go any
further into this question is both very complicated and off topic for this
From: Tsadowq at aol.com [mailto:Tsadowq at aol.com]
Sent: 05 February 2001 21:19
To: Biblical Hebrew
Subject: LXX...perhaps misleading?
Previous Thread: Re: Isaiah 7:14 and Matthew (once more)
In a message dated 02/05/2001 11:23:38 AM
Mountain Standard Time, Peter_Kirk at sil.org writes:
<< The relevant question for this list is not racial origin of
the Matthew but whether the author, whoever he or she
might be, knew enough Hebrew to understand Isaiah 7:14
properly, or rather had to rely on the perhaps misleading
I find this interesting: "or rather had to rely on the perhaps
misleading LXX translation". This comment is remarkable
to me, as my own studies in biblical Greek appeared to
indicate that many passages from the New Testament
were actually being quoted from the LXX.
It has been many years since I remember noticing this,
but I believe that I first found the anomaly when reading
from LK 4:17-21.
Was Jesus really quoting from the LXX?...or did Matthew,
(at some later point in time), realize the significance of this
Temple event and attempt to quote Jesus from memory --
using the LXX for a reference?
If the LXX is "perhaps misleading", what are the
ramifications of this document being so often
quoted from by New Testament authors?
While this is not specifically a biblical Hebrew question,
I believe it to be a valid point of discussion nonetheless.
It has been quite a while since I researched this issue,
and I would appreciate hearing any other comments or
correction offered toward this end.
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