LXX...perhaps misleading?

Tsadowq at aol.com Tsadowq at aol.com
Mon Feb 5 16:19:27 EST 2001

Previous Thread: Re: Isaiah 7:14 and Matthew (once more)

Hello everyone,

In a message dated 02/05/2001 11:23:38 AM 
Mountain Standard Time, Peter_Kirk at sil.org writes:
<< The relevant question for this list is not racial origin of 
the Matthew but whether the author, whoever he or she 
might be, knew enough Hebrew to understand Isaiah 7:14 
properly, or rather had to rely on the perhaps misleading 
LXX translation.>>

I find this interesting: "or rather had to rely on the perhaps
misleading LXX translation". This comment is remarkable
to me, as my own studies in biblical Greek appeared to 
indicate that many passages from the New Testament 
were actually being quoted from the LXX. 

It has been many years since I remember noticing this,
but I believe that I first found the anomaly when reading
from LK 4:17-21. 

Was Jesus really quoting from the LXX?...or did Matthew,
(at some later point in time), realize the significance of this
Temple event and attempt to quote Jesus from memory -- 
using the LXX for a reference?

If the LXX is "perhaps misleading", what are the 
ramifications of this document being so often 
quoted from by New Testament authors? 

While this is not specifically a biblical Hebrew question, 
I believe it to be a valid point of discussion nonetheless.

It has been quite a while since I researched this issue, 
and I would appreciate hearing any other comments or 
correction offered toward this end. 

Best regards,

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