Isaiah 7:14 and Matthew

Jonathan D. Safren yon_saf at bezeqint.net
Sun Feb 4 12:53:17 EST 2001


Thanks to Jack, Raymons and Stephen for the instructive answers.
Without entering into the controversy as to the authorship of the Gospel
According to Matthew, could there be a connection between the hostile
attitude exhibited by the author towards the Jews and the fact that the Jews
had just lost a 4-year war against the Romans and, because of the cost in
Roman lives and taxes,  were not exactly enjoying popularity in the Roman
Empire  at the time, and this in addition to the reasons given by Jack below
(Birkat HaMinim and increased gentile/decereased Jewish participation in the
new religion?
(I thinkJoseph Klausner wrote on this subject in his book _From Jesus to
Paul_, but I can't find my copy anywhere).
Jonathan D. Safren
Chairman
Dept. of Biblical Studies
Beit Berl College
44905 Israel
----- Original Message -----
From: "Jack Kilmon" <jkilmon at historian.net>
To: "Jonathan D. safren" <yonsaf at beitberl.ac.il>; "Biblical Hebrew"
<b-hebrew at franklin.oit.unc.edu>
Sent: Sunday, February 04, 2001 6:00 PM
Subject: Re: Isaiah 7:14 and Matthew


>
> ----- Original Message -----
> From: "Jonathan D. safren" <yonsaf at beitberl.ac.il>
> To: "Biblical Hebrew" <b-hebrew at franklin.oit.unc.edu>
> Sent: Sunday, February 04, 2001 12:46 AM
> Subject: Re: Isaiah 7:14 and Matthew
>
>
> > Pardon my ignorance - and here I am ignorant - isn't Matthew a Jewish
> name?
> > Mattai - a hypocoristicon of Matityahu - "Gift of YHWH"?
>
> Sure is, Jon. Many of the 2nd temple names truncated the theophoric.  The
> Gospel of Matthew was given its title long after it was composed, however.
> It was convention to assign an authoritative name to a work and the name
of
> the disciple Matthew was probably assigned to this work because of the
> tradition that Matthew wrote down the "oracles" ("Q") that this author
used
> in Greek translation.  I believe the lexical and syntactic interference in
> Matthean
> Greek from Aramaic is translational and not compositional and this author
> was neither competent in Aramaic nor Hebrew.  If true, I don't think this
is
> evidence this hagiographer was a gentile, but instead a Hellenistic Jew.
>
> It is my opinion that this author was motivated by the recently instituted
> Birkhat haMinim in 85CE and his perception that gentile participation in
> the "way" was dramatically increasing while Jewish participation was
> declining,
> hence he is  saying "Hey! This is really a Jewish thing."
>
> Jack
> --
> ______________________________________________
>
> taybutheh d'maran yeshua masheecha am kulkon
>
> Jack Kilmon
> Austin, Texas
> jkilmon at historian.net
>
> http://www.historian.net
>
> sharing a meal for free.
> http://www.thehungersite.com/
>
>
>
>
>
>




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