Isaiah 7:14 and Matthew

Jack Kilmon jkilmon at historian.net
Sun Feb 4 11:00:29 EST 2001



----- Original Message -----
From: "Jonathan D. safren" <yonsaf at beitberl.ac.il>
To: "Biblical Hebrew" <b-hebrew at franklin.oit.unc.edu>
Sent: Sunday, February 04, 2001 12:46 AM
Subject: Re: Isaiah 7:14 and Matthew


> Pardon my ignorance - and here I am ignorant - isn't Matthew a Jewish
name?
> Mattai - a hypocoristicon of Matityahu - "Gift of YHWH"?

Sure is, Jon. Many of the 2nd temple names truncated the theophoric.  The
Gospel of Matthew was given its title long after it was composed, however.
It was convention to assign an authoritative name to a work and the name of
the disciple Matthew was probably assigned to this work because of the
tradition that Matthew wrote down the "oracles" ("Q") that this author used
in Greek translation.  I believe the lexical and syntactic interference in
Matthean
Greek from Aramaic is translational and not compositional and this author
was neither competent in Aramaic nor Hebrew.  If true, I don't think this is
evidence this hagiographer was a gentile, but instead a Hellenistic Jew.

It is my opinion that this author was motivated by the recently instituted
Birkhat haMinim in 85CE and his perception that gentile participation in
the "way" was dramatically increasing while Jewish participation was
declining,
hence he is  saying "Hey! This is really a Jewish thing."

Jack
--
______________________________________________

taybutheh d'maran yeshua masheecha am kulkon

Jack Kilmon
Austin, Texas
jkilmon at historian.net

http://www.historian.net

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