Psalm 12:5-7

Jonathan D. Safren yon_saf at
Sat Feb 3 01:46:03 EST 2001

Dan Wagner wrote:
> Yes, although you'll find that many on this list have no concern for
> inerrancy, preservation, or any doctrine of Scripture--which this psalm is
> sometimes asserted to relate to.

This list is not concerned with the "inerrancy...or doctrine of Scripture"
but, in the narrower sense, with the language of the Tanakh. and, in the
wider sense with the Bible against its Ancient Near Eastern background, the
origins and development of biblical literature, the interpretation of words,
verses, passages etc. in context.
If we were all to introduce our belief systems into discussion on this list,
we would have no room for scholarly discourse, only for disputation.
If you are disappointed that "many on this list have no concern for
inerrancy, preservation, or any doctrine of Scripture", then I suggest you
join another list.
Jonathan D. Safren
Dept. of Biblical Studies
Beit Berl College
44905 Israel
----- Original Message -----
From: "Dan Wagner" <Dan.Wagner at>
To: "Biblical Hebrew" <b-hebrew at>
Cc: "'Theodore H. Mann'" <theomann at>
Sent: Saturday, February 03, 2001 12:27 AM
Subject: RE: Psalm 12:5-7

> > -----Original Message-----
> > From: Theodore H. Mann [mailto:theomann at]
> > Sent: Thursday, February 01, 2001 17:04
> > To: Biblical Hebrew
> > Subject: Psalm 12:5-7
> >
> >
> > Greetings all.
> >
> >    I just joined the list and this is my first post; I hope it's
> > reasonably intelligent.
> concerns the Hebrew text,
> so it is a good one.
> >    Regarding Ps.12:5-7, I recently read the following statement in a
> > locally generated theological journal.  This was in reference to the
> > providential preservation of the Bible issue:
> >
> > "... it is... probable that verse 7 ('Thou shall keep them...
> > thou shalt
> > preserve them') is not... referring to 'the words of the
> > Lord' in verse 6.
> >  The Hebrew term for 'them' (twice in v. 7) is masculine,
> > while the term
> > for 'words' is feminine.
> Correct, _)eMAROTH_ is fem. plural in v. 7[6], but in verse 8[7] the
> on _$MR_ (the first verb) is masc. plural, and the second verb for
> "guard/keep" _NCR_ has the masc. singular suffix (i.e., the object of the
> verb). So literally, we should translate "You, Yahweh, will keep them
> You will guard him [MS] from this generation forever." It does not refer
> the fem. "words." Rather, it references
> (1.) the masc. pl. "poor ones," "afflicted ones," in v. 6[5] & "faithful
> ones" in v. 2[1], and also
> (2.) David, the "loyal/godly one" _XASID_ of verse 1-2[1].
> I think it's interesting (at least to my theology) that the singular
> reference to David, the king, and the plural of those of his kingdom are
> equated by the parallelism. In any case, God preserves His *people* in
> passage which teaches nothing with reference to the preservation of
> Scripture.
> Actually, there is no text in the Bible (OT or NT) that *intends* to
> directly teach a doctrine of preservation of manuscripts or documents
> (though there are some general implications). This gives a certain
> liberty--and a certain responsibility--regarding textual criticism (that
> some want to resist). I'd be happy to give you my view of that, off-list,
> you're interested.
> Dan Wagner
> ---
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