Language code switching in Daniel
dwashbur at nyx.net
Mon Dec 31 11:33:17 EST 2001
> On another issue, how can one possibly erect a theory of inerrancy for the
> LXX based upon a quotation of Jesus in the NT? All the direct quotations of
> his words are in Aramaic, non?
Non. First of all, the quotation mentioned was in Hebrews, not in
the gospels. Second, it's clear that Jesus must have spoken Greek as
well as Aramaic since we have numerous examples where he spoke to non-
Jews such as a Roman centurion, a Syrophonecian woman, and the Roman
procurator. Where it's clear he spoke Aramaic, the Aramaic words are
transliterated into Greek characters, and they're only snippets.
Given the commonness of a mixed audience, it seems more likely that
he spoke Greek most of the time. But even assuming otherwise, the
Hebrews quotation has nothing to do with it.
This time, like all times, is a very good one if we but know what to
do with it.
More information about the b-hebrew