Greek vs. Hebrew

Gary Coombs gcoombs at shadowmountain.org
Sun Dec 30 10:48:15 EST 2001


12/30/01

Ted:

I don't believe the Septuagint is generally considered to be more authoritative than the Hebrew Old Testament but I believe there are occasions where the Septuagint has a reading that must have been in the Hebrew text originally but is not found in the extant manuscripts.  The one example I can think of is Hebrews 1:6 "Let all the angels of God worship Him.."  This Appears to be a quite from Deuteronomy 32:43 in the Septuagint but was not in the extant Hebrew manuscripts, nor is it in our English Bibles in Deuteronomy 32:43.  I understand that a dead sea scroll fragment of the Hebrew Old Testament does have these words.  

Since the Word of God is inerrant and yet Hebrews 1:6 appears to quote Deuteronomy 32:43 from the Septuagint even though the reading cannot be found in Hebew outside of a fragment from the Dead Sea Scrolls, it seems to me that we should include "Let all the angels of God worship Him" in Deuteronomy 32:43.  

Another related point.  Are translations of the Hebrew Old Testament and Greek New Testament the Word of God or simply translations of the Word of God?  I would say that since Jesus considered the Septuagint the Word of God we can do the same with our English translations.  

Having read the entire Septuagint with the exception of the Apocrypha (I have only read a little of the Apocrypha) I think that the translators were more careful in their translation of the Five books of Moses than they were the prophets or the writings.  I would like to know whether others concur with this.  I have not done a formal comparison and my knowledge of Hebrew is horribly deficient but this is the sense I got from my reading.

Gary Coombs
Southern California Bible College and Seminary
El Cajon, California

  

>>> "Theodore H. Mann" <theomann at earthlink.net> 12/29 9:03 PM >>>
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