Gen 1:2 "was"/"became"
language_lover64801 at yahoo.com
Wed Sep 6 23:16:23 EDT 2000
> I toyed with using other terms, but I thought the
> marks indicated sufficiently that I know the two
> constituents in question are not "really" direct and
> indirect objects.
I apologize for not recognizing that you had used the
quotation marks as a distinction between a true DO/IDO
and this one you label as such for lack of a better
> > It must be conceded that HYH does *sometimes* mean
> > 'become,' even when the lamed element is wanting.
> > However, it seems that the reason for such a
> > translation is clearly expressed in the fact that
> > is shown by the previous state as opposed to the
> > resultative state of the subject. For example, if
> > was a boy when I was younger and later I was a
> > the
> > tendency would be to say that I 'became' a man.
> > David, he was _not_ Saul's armor-bearer before,
> > he was (hence, he 'became') one. This applies to
> > of the above mentioned 'exceptions.' Either they
> > up and 'became' what they were not before (as a
> > or they had an expressly mentioned former state
> > contrasted with a different resultative state
> > --> salt; dirt --> gnats).
> I don't follow. The same can be said of the
> examples that
> *do* contain lamed. Lot's wife's prior state of
> humanity is
> no more expressly stated than the Moabites' prior
> state of
> freedom in 2 Sam 8:2.
The reason that I have stated it that way is this:
while HYH with lamed+noun (excepting lamed used for
possession or other special situations) assuminly
always represents 'become,' HYH *without* those
qualifiers means 'become' only when specifically given
reason to mean so (change in
situation/class/office/etc.). _Of course_ the former
was true. We are discussing the situations and
validity of the second. (I assumed that I could leave
the former out of my argument without
misunderstanding, just as you assumed I would
understand your quotation marks.)
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